ILLMAS Posted October 16, 2019 Report Share Posted October 16, 2019 Can someone give me a good reason why a business A (revenue, payroll, expenses etc...) would run their operations with one FEIN, but report (1120) with business B FEIN  I would understand if business A, gave business B a K-1 but this is not the case. The IRS probably doesn't care who reports it, however I would think the IRS would like to tie a 1099-K issued to business A wouldn't they? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Margaret CPA in OH Posted October 16, 2019 Report Share Posted October 16, 2019 Consolidated companies? Division? Subsidiary? DBA? Do you know of any relationship such as identical shareholders? 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ILLMAS Posted October 16, 2019 Author Report Share Posted October 16, 2019 Consolidated companies? Division? Subsidiary? Don't see any reference on the tax return.   DBA? No, at first that is what I thought.  Do you know of any relationship such as identical shareholders? Yes, same shareholders on both companies.   Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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