David Posted March 27, 2014 Report Share Posted March 27, 2014 Business owner was reimbursed for a portion of the leasehold improvements that were done in 2012. I'm wondering how to handle this. Set it up as a liability and amortize it into income over the remaining depreciation period of the leasehold improvements? Or can I add it as a negative fixed asset? I have had so many problems with ATX fixed assets that I am afraid to do anything out of the ordinary. Thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kcjenkins Posted March 27, 2014 Report Share Posted March 27, 2014 I'd just adjust the remaining basis in the asset, which will have the same effect [reducing amortization each yr] without any odd item inviting an audit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David Posted March 28, 2014 Author Report Share Posted March 28, 2014 Thanks, KC. I don't know why I didn't think of that. I don't see a place in fixed assets to adjust the remaining basis. Where do I do that? Thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jshtax Posted March 28, 2014 Report Share Posted March 28, 2014 You just change the original amount. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David Posted March 28, 2014 Author Report Share Posted March 28, 2014 That won't raise a red flag with the IRS or cause a problem with prior year accumulated depreciation? Thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kcjenkins Posted March 28, 2014 Report Share Posted March 28, 2014 Nope. If it was a massive amount, you might get a CP2000 and have to explain, but that's the most that would happen. And the prior depreciation was correct at the time, so no issue there. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David Posted March 29, 2014 Author Report Share Posted March 29, 2014 OK. Thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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