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DANRVAN

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Posts posted by DANRVAN

  1. 9 hours ago, BulldogTom said:

    an expense account for the fuels and insurance costs and an offsetting expense account called reimbursed costs from customer to zero out the amounts.

    But there was not any reimbursement or expense.  The arrangement and facts, right or wrong, appears that mom pays for fuel and insurance.

    On 7/4/2023 at 9:50 AM, Christian said:

    imagine what the Service will make of a truck driver with no fuel or expense deductions on his return.

    But those are the facts and I would report it that way.  So what if you report $xx,xxx in fuel expenses paid by mom, how will you substantiate for IRS auditor regardless of the gross up of revenue?  It does not change the bottom line.

    I agree with others that there is room for future improvement, but I would stick with the facts for reporting.

    • Like 1
  2. On 6/27/2023 at 8:31 AM, Abby Normal said:

    Tax wise, It's not a big deal if there was one K1 for one spouse or two K1s split 50/50. The 1040 tax will be the same and there are no SE issues.

    This more of a divorce settlement issue. Who gets the corporation? This will be part of the overall property split (you get the corp, I get the house, etc.).

    and determine whether it was marital property or separate property of either spouse.

    • Like 1
  3. 13 hours ago, schirallicpa said:

    I believe the C Corp will be ineligible for installment reporting if the corp is on an accrual basis.

    That was the rule 20+ years ago.  It was repealed and struck from section 453.

     

    13 hours ago, schirallicpa said:

    Does the corp have to stay open to continue to collect the payments?  Can the payment agreement be transferred?  Or does this trigger another event somehow......? 

    In order for shareholder to receive installment treatment, the corp must adopt a plan of complete liquidation.  The sale of the assets and distribution of the installment agreement to the shareholder (in exchange for his/her stock) must occur within 12 months from the date the plan of liquidation is adopted.  See sec 453 for details.

    • Thanks 1
  4. 11 hours ago, mircpa said:

    retro 8832 for it to be treated as corporation or amend tax return to sole proprietor (Sch C) or partnership

    The deciding factor might be whether they paid shareholder wages.

    The tax consequences of distributing assets upon liquidation will be different for corp. vs partnership.

     

    • Like 1
  5. 47 minutes ago, Pacun said:

    The tricky part is if the contractor didn't do any improvements but rather only repairs.

    It will either be an expense to sell or addition to basis, but the net will be the same since the property was held for investment.

    • Like 3
  6. For tax purposes, the LLC designation is irrelevant.

    The business is changing from a partnership to a sole proprietor and  will need a new EIN.

    Since the partnership has been dissolved for tax purposes, the assets (and liabilities) are considered transferred to the partners in a liquidating distribution.

    22 hours ago, Lion EA said:

    Lawyer has him sign over his 50% partnership interest to W

    I wonder if lawyer understands that partnership ceased to exist the instant H transfers to W.

    I think it would be simpler to show the transfer of assets form H to W after distribution; rather than transfer of partnership interest immediately before dissolution.  However, the net basis to W would be the same either way.

    • Like 2
  7. 3 hours ago, Sara EA said:

    5-year comment was meant to apply to concession stands. 

    correct

     

    11 hours ago, BLACK BART said:

    first post starts out with possible 39 years

    And most likely is 39 year property unless it can be proven otherwise per reg 1.856-10 (d):

    (2) Inherently permanent structure -

    (i) In general. The term inherently permanent structure means any permanently affixed building or other permanently affixed structure. Affixation may be to land or to another inherently permanent structure and may be by weight alone. If the affixation is reasonably expected to last indefinitely based on all the facts and circumstances, the affixation is considered permanent. 

    • Like 5
  8. 40 minutes ago, JohnH said:

    on the roller with the edge facing the wrong way…

     

    I was actually able to negotiate that one in my favor.   Now if I could just get the seat to put itself down......🤔

    • Haha 5
  9. 3 minutes ago, Christian said:

    and see no way I can deduct the current 2022 passive loss from his new rental from the capital gain produced by the sale of his older rental in 2022.

     

    Did you check the boxes mentioned in the above post?  It should then flow to 8582.

     

    7 minutes ago, DANRVAN said:

    On 4747 input did you specify the sale related to property A?

     

    On the Schedule E input sheet for A did you check the box that it was a complete disposition of a passive activity?

     

  10. 6 hours ago, Christian said:

    He set up a house he inherited from his mother last year and posted a loss from that

     

    So you have two rental properties on Schedule E, one that was sold (A) and the other with a disallowed loss (B).

     

    On 4747 input did you specify the sale related to property A?

     

    On the Schedule E input sheet for A did you check the box that it was a complete disposition of a passive activity?

     

    Those steps should net the loss on B against the gain of A. 

  11. 37 minutes ago, Christian said:

    depreciation to his income for 2022 taxing it at his regular tax rate

     

    That is correct.  The unrecaptured section 1250 is a capital gain which can be offset by capital losses,  but taxed at a maximum ordinary rate of 25%.

  12. On 4/17/2023 at 5:59 AM, mcb39 said:

    came to me with the Carryover loss already established and I don't know the particulars of the story

     

    Personally,  I would want some general verification (documented) before I put a $200,000 carryforward on a tax return; it could come back to bite you if disallowed. 

     

    Catherine mentioned the possibility of a 33% drop in the market value, but it is also likely the previous preparer did not know the difference between an allowable loss and a partial gift.

     

    It should not be very difficult to document a significant drop in market value given the date of inheritance vs date of sale.

    • Like 1
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