J R Sandoval EA Posted August 13, 2009 Report Share Posted August 13, 2009 Married client sold house in 2008; house belonged to him and his daughter from a previous marriage. His current wife was not in the title. Based on the Q & A scenarios from the IRS web site, they do not qualify for the first time home buyer credit if they purchase a house this year. However, his realtor keeps telling him that his current wife qualifes for the credit because she has not owned a house in the last three years. Am I missing something in my interpretation of this scenario? Thanks for your help. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TAXBILLY Posted August 13, 2009 Report Share Posted August 13, 2009 S4 is pretty clear. The realtor needs to get a copy of this but more importantly he/she should not be giving out erroneous tax advice just to make a sale. http://www.irs.gov/newsroom/article/0,,id=206294,00.html taxbilly Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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