J R Sandoval EA Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 Client has a valid social security number but spouse has ITIN. Do they qualify for "making work pay credit"? Pub 17 does not describe this situation. Thanks in advance for your help. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pacun Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 Yes, they do qualify. You thought that our current president was smarter than our previous one, didn't you? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
GeneInAlabama Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 Actually, I think he IS smart enough to know what he is doing. I think he is doing it on purpose. That's what makes it so bad. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kcjenkins Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 Pub 17 may not, but the instructions for Sch M do. It says clearly that you must include the SS number "of either you or your spouse". So only need one of them to have the number. Not allowing it unless they both had a SSN was one of the amendments presented by the Republicans that Pelosi did not allow to be voted on. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TAXBILLY Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 If this is going to be a political thread can it be labelled as such? taxbilly Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kcjenkins Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 Bill, this thread is about the tax code, not politics. Let's be honest here, politics is always at least part of tax law writing, so it's relevant from time to time to mention the why of a particular section of the code. However, I think we've covered the tax angle on this one, so let's just let this one be closed, and we'll continue on with figuring out all the new angles and trip-wires of the current law. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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