Margaret CPA in OH

But she is a spouse, is she not? Why would IRS audit her?

Maybe she should file first, as soon as she receives her W-2 and 1099 and take standard deduction.

Scrapple is a relative of goetta, popular around here, southwest Ohio, and you don't want to know that either.

I am so very sorry to hear of these losses, too much for anyone. Wish I could help you as I do have time but, alas, I am in Ohio. Know that many here hold you in thought and prayer.

Check Ohio Form IT-1040. Page 4, Schedule D, is for Part-Year Resident Credit which will help calculate what may be due. She gets an exemption even if parents claim her for federal purposes. Columbus, like many/most Ohio municipalities taxes at a given rate and may give credit if you reside in another nearby municipality depending. Because she lived in Columbus, she was 'fully withheld' and no filing is required nor credit given.

Rita, that is exactly what happened and what I did. When I reduced the basis, he had a significant gain but at cg rates. This was a better outcome than the full amount at ordinary rates. Still, he's in shock at the tax due. He isn't insolvent but has to draw out retirement money and, at 64, hasn't a lot of time left to regenerate. Like me, he will be working past 'normal' retirement age. I definitely should be making more money but am sometimes a softy on folks like this. It's hard to kick him when he's down. I did have to put in lots of extra effort even outside the learning curve. He has MN and NC state returns, too, plus OIH for 6 months before he quit that job plus temporary expenses while training. Whew! I want him to just settle down for a while.

I am interested in this, too, although the situation I had was different in several ways. The property actually sold, part of the mortgage was paid, the rest 'forgiven' and there was no FMV of the property in Box 7 because the mortgage lender didn't take it back. I have pored over this stuff and still am shaky but think you may be on the right track. I ended up reducing the basis of the property.

Hmm, I don't see a way out. I do one HOA but they are consistently in the right range. With the profit on 1120, wouldn't the tax be uncomfortable? Maybe they should consider raising the dues or assessments as needed. When filed earlier without apparent notices, was the income put on Line 7 and expenses on Line 15? That would give rise to 30% tax. Or was the total income, without identification, all on Line 1? Maybe 'someone' figured it was all 'exempt function' without research. I didn't look to see how the exempt loss would work. Hope it does.

The total of the g/l of all of them is about $1. If, for some reason, a notice arrives, I will deal with it then. They have completely disposed of the holdings so don't think there will be bad vibes in the future. Thanks for replies!

Thanks, Joan. If it's always been there then my brain hasn't been! How much one can forget in 2 short years....

Julie, I am so sorry about your loss. I, too, have lost pets too many times. Always bad, really bad during this season.

For several years a client has claimed a child on alternate years. For those years, according to signed Form 8832, I have sent a copy with Form 8453. In years not claimed, I have just checked the box 'Check to not claim dependent this year' and left data for rollover the next year. Now I am getting a warning about this, to mail the 8832 even though the box is checked to not claim. It's just a warning not an error but makes me uncomfortable. I have liked that the data is there every year to remind me. Is that now lost or do I just not worry about it? Anyone else see this?

Very much missed for many reasons...

If I enter what the 1099 shows, I can just enter the bottom line total with the appropriate box they list on top. Each has the corresponding box with basis shown, A or D. Nowhere is there a code W, just the verbiage I mentioned. There were no prior year sales or, so far as I can tell, any other sales until these holdings were liquidated in 2013. The client has provided a spreadsheet showing original purchases and all reinvestments taken from statements. I think I will just list as the statement shows with the code the statement says to use. Just seems weird to have the listing this way. Thanks for the help!

I'm not clear on how to enter it, then. They have completely liquidated the account do perhaps that is why those are listed under short term. I am not listing these as separate transactions, right? It seems the additional days for holding have been taken into account when the sales were reported. There are also a couple listed on the long term list with basis reported. They show 600+ days added with purchase dates within a month of sale but in the long term listing. Should the entry be something different? Do I need to isolate these and indicate wash sale?

On a limb here: I wouldn't use it because I would deem it a breech of client's confidential records (those records with that ssn). Call your EO insurance company to be sure.

1099B shows several sales including 3 "Wash sale: 354 days added to holding period FIRST IN FIRST OUT" and 323 days and 295 days. I've not seen this before. Correct way to handle? What does it mean to add days to holding period?

Which you both correctly reported as barter transactions per IRS Tax Tip 2014-26 which arrived in my email box just a bit ago. http://www.irs.gov/Businesses/Small-Businesses-&-Self-Employed/Bartering-Tax-Center

I think it has to do with trying to be distracted from the piles of stuff we really don't want to do at this moment.

Karen, that would be me and 1099C and Form 982 and all related stuff! You are not alone!

David1980, that makes perfect sense! My old eyes must have been glazing over at that passage. I have read the pub but admit to not digesting every word. I still then am foggy on where/how to reduce basis. If I do this before disposal, do I change it in Fixed Assets before the 4797 calcs? If so, as I posted earlier, he would show a gain of $47,000. That plus including $87,000 of COD would be impossible for a tax to pay. I clearly am missing things here. Thanks for whatever help you are willing to provide. I did send him the insolvency form to complete. We shall see what that reveals!

Thanks again, Tom. I reread the 982 instructions. Line 1d mentions the amount excluded limited to ...(as of the first day of the next tax year or, if earlier, the date of disposition). I think 'if earlier' is operative here so it seems 982 is included in the 2013 return. The fog is a bit less hazy now, but not much! I look forward to your later reply and, again, thank you so very much!

Okay, new technique to learn - screen shot and email to self. On my list

I really appreciate email because I can save it easily into their file as a pdf. What do you do with texts? I have only a couple of folks that even know how to text (I just got into it this year) but really don't want info that I cannot save somewhere besides my phone for future reference.

Thanks so very, very much, Tom! This may seem simple to some but not so much to me. And I never expected any of my clients to be faced with this. I input the sale data and arrived at ~ $24,000 loss. There was a PAL adjustment of $26,553 from Form 8582 for special allowance for rentals with active participation the standard for which I believe he met. I will have to ask him to complete the insolvency worksheet but my guess is that he was not insolvent when considering retirement assets. Of course, if he had to liquidate everything to pay the tax, then he would be insolvent. I reread the qualified rp business info and think this works. However, in the example it mentions that the basis in the depreciable property must be reduced by the cancelled debt. So does that then mean that the disposition of the condo must now be changed to basis of $135,090-$87,881=$47, 209 and then the sale is $92,000-$47,209 and thus a gain of $44,791? And how does Form 982 data enter into any calculations? I just don't see where the data flows. The examples in Pub. 4681 all seem geared to principal residences. I sort of understand the first one but not the others. And I have no understanding about your comment that "the 982 reduction in tax attributes does not take effect until the first day of the new tax year for the client. DO NOTHING WITH THE BASIS AS A RESULT OF THE CANCELLED DEBT IN 2013." He owes $21,000+ without something on 2013 and I know he cannot pay it. Does he just owe and owe and wait until filing for 2014 to do something with this? I so appreciate your time and assistance. I think if I have any more of these, I will pass!