Jump to content
ATX Community

renting upstairs to cousin


Possi

Recommended Posts

So, 2 brothers bought grandma's house for $200k.

Grandma's stuff is still in the house, all "downstairs." They are renting upstairs to a cousin for $400/month. They intend to clean the place out, clean it up, and use it as full-rental property within a year. They didn't want it vacant, so cuz moved in.

Not sure how to depreciate upstairs, especially knowing this will change for 2018.

Any suggestions?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

33 minutes ago, Pacun said:

Your cousin is NOT a related party. Your cousin is nothing more than your friend.

 

^ this.   Sec 280A defines "family" by referring back to sec 267(c)(4) that reads as follows  -

 

Quote

The family of an individual shall include only his brothers and sisters (whether by the whole or half blood), spouse, ancestors, and lineal descendants

 

  • Like 2
Link to comment
Share on other sites

I guess I was wrong.

Now another question, I have a house that I rented for 27.5 to a good family that took good care of it and now my house has been depreciated (let's say) almost completely.  The area where the house is has become the place where every body wants to live and rent is really expensive. Let's say rent is $10K per month and my cousin rents it from me for 9K which is under FMV. So I just pocket those $118K from rent since it is personal use?

 

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I'd suggest a 10% discount to a good tenant would NOT make it personal use, still close enough to FMR for me, but I don't have any clients with rentals right now so haven't researched that lately.  However, IF it were personal use, you report income, gross income, on Line 21 and take NO deductions, I think.  Maybe deductions on Sch A, but I think not.  So, you haven't pocketed anything, less than if it were an arms-length rental on Sch E where you can deduct expenses and depreciation.  I'm glad to hear that a cousin doesn't muddy the waters.  Long ago I had a client who let his daughter live in his second home really cheap, so had to research at that time.  He was not happy with the outcome!  He was expecting to deduct his foregone rent or something like that.

  • Like 3
Link to comment
Share on other sites

3 hours ago, Pacun said:

I guess I was wrong.

Pacun, no, you were correct!  A relative isn't necessarily a related party under the tax law that I cited.  A cousin would NOT be a related party under the rules of 280A.   Along with cousins, these people are also excluded from the related party definition: stepparents, uncles, in-laws, cousins, nephews and ex-spouses. 

  • Like 3
Link to comment
Share on other sites

7 hours ago, jklcpa said:

Pacun, no, you were correct!  A relative isn't necessarily a related party under the tax law that I cited.  A cousin would NOT be a related party under the rules of 280A.   Along with cousins, these people are also excluded from the related party definition: stepparents, uncles, in-laws, cousins, nephews and ex-spouses. 

No aunts?  I guess this isn't a picnic. :P

  • Haha 6
Link to comment
Share on other sites

18 hours ago, Lion EA said:

I'd suggest a 10% discount to a good tenant would NOT make it personal use, still close enough to FMR for me, but I don't have any clients with rentals right now so haven't researched that lately.  However, IF it were personal use, you report income, gross income, on Line 21 and take NO deductions, I think.  Maybe deductions on Sch A, but I think not.  So, you haven't pocketed anything, less than if it were an arms-length rental on Sch E where you can deduct expenses and depreciation.  I'm glad to hear that a cousin doesn't muddy the waters.  Long ago I had a client who let his daughter live in his second home really cheap, so had to research at that time.  He was not happy with the outcome!  He was expecting to deduct his foregone rent or something like that.

I would have done a gift return in the case of the daughter getting almost free rent.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Even if it is an unrelated party and the rental shows a loss for 3 out of 5 consecutive years, it could be classified as a not-for-profit rental.  

From Pub 527

Presumption of profit. If your rental income is more than your rental expenses for at least 3 years out of a period of 5 consecutive years, you are presumed to be renting your property to make a profit.

  • Like 3
Link to comment
Share on other sites

16 minutes ago, Max W said:

Presumption of profit. If your rental income is more than your rental expenses for at least 3 years out of a period of 5

I would add back depreciation before making that calculation. Positive cash flow would cut it. Also, knowing the property would increase in value, supports an ultimate profit motive.

  • Like 3
Link to comment
Share on other sites

If there is ANY history whatsoever of prior tenants that trashed the place, that also supports giving a GOOD tenant a discount.  A good long-term tenant who treats your property well is worth a LOT of money to any landlord.  And extra couple thousand a year is nothing if a jerk does $10K of damage.

  • Like 1
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Restore formatting

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
  • Recently Browsing   0 members

    • No registered users viewing this page.
×
×
  • Create New...