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Inherited stock, no capital gains taxes?


giogis245

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Hello, we're on the final stretch!  I have a client who came in with this form, she inherited stock from her grandpa.  He passed in July of 2022, she withdrew the money in Aug 2022, her Merrill Lynch stock broker told her she would not have to pay taxes. I've never had a situation like this, so your help is greatly appreciated!  

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Hello Teresa, you would report it as like any other stock sale but you need to go back to date of death and look up the value of the stocks.  That would be your cost basis, there is a chance the stock didn’t appreciate in value between DOD and when your client sold them.

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You have to use Form 8949 to report the DOD cost basis to be able to show her actual gain/loss for her month of ownership. Plus, the IRS has the Form 1099-B so its computers will try to match to her return.

Get the DOD values for each of the sales from her ML stock broker. In fact, have him print her gain/loss statement using the DOD cost basis for each transaction. He should upload it to a ML portal and give you access. Download it to your computer. Then you have the documentation you need to prepare her return and to include in her tax folder for her to keep. Also, save a copy of her ML gain/loss statement in your electronic file for your client, just in case she gets any IRS correspondence that you will respond to for her.

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50 minutes ago, Pacun said:

inherited stock, you start wearing the shoes of the deceased. Meaning, no step up basis

 

You "step into the shoes" of the decedent for assets producing income in respect of the decedent, IRD.  IRD includes such items as: installment notes receivable, IRA accounts,....... investments in annuities.

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On 4/11/2023 at 11:27 AM, cbslee said:

The stock market has been pretty volatile, there is an equal chance of significant price changes.

And, Inherited, is one case where she could possibly have a LT Capital loss.  I have a client who will never outlive her carryforward $3000 a year loss.

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4 minutes ago, cbslee said:

I can't even imagine how that could have happened?

Before she became my client, which is many years ago; she inherited a $600,000 house from her father and sold it for approximately $400,000 just to get rid of it because it was standing empty.  They wipe some of it out with CG; the most prominent one two years ago when they sold a Rental property.  They still have a lot of CL left.  Even more astonishing; WI  only allows a $500 CL per year.  They are a nice couple who are secure as one can be these days.  They have invested wisely and live a happy, but not ostentatious life.  They winter in AZ and come home in April.  I have to say that when they first came to me, I was as intimidated as I have ever been.   I thought they were way out of my league.  That is no longer true.  They trust me explicitly and I value them as clients.

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6 hours ago, mcb39 said:

she inherited a $600,000 house from her father and sold it for approximately $400,000 just to get rid of it because it was standing empty. 

 

That raises a couple possibilities. 

 

(a) The house could have been overvalued by $200,000   or

 

(b) The house was sold for less than FMV and the difference should have been reported as a gift.

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11 hours ago, DANRVAN said:

 

That raises a couple possibilities. 

 

(a) The house could have been overvalued by $200,000   or

 

(b) The house was sold for less than FMV and the difference should have been reported as a gift.

I cannot clarify that as she came to me with the Carryover loss already established and I don't know the particulars of the story.  They have been with me for several years and have never been questioned by the IRS since I have known them.

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Part of what I love about this forum is the never-ending stream of fascinating situations and (I say this sincerely) brilliant responses! If there were a John Grisham for tax law, that person could have a never ending supply of plot lines just from reading the intriguing stuff posted here.

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So, back to this topic. I have a question about proper reporting. I also have mucho sales of inherited stock. I created a spreadsheet showing the reported basis and the basis as of the DOD.

On Line (e) Basis, do I put the DOD value, or the reported (earlier) value, with a code in line (f) and an adjustment in (g)? If a code, which code? I can see using (B) Basis Shown is Incorrect, or (O) All Other Adjustments. I looked in the 8949 Instructions, and it's a little unclear, as it does mention doing either but does not mention specifically when inherited property.

Thanks!

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For 8949 entries, I would just plug in the DOD valuation for cost basis.  You have your spreadsheet in case the IRS questions the difference between what the broker reported and what you entered.  My experience is that as long as the stock sales match IRS numbers, they are not going to get involved without some other type of trigger/red flag.

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10 hours ago, Yrags said:

So, back to this topic. I have a question about proper reporting. I also have mucho sales of inherited stock. I created a spreadsheet showing the reported basis and the basis as of the DOD.

On Line (e) Basis, do I put the DOD value, or the reported (earlier) value, with a code in line (f) and an adjustment in (g)? If a code, which code? I can see using (B) Basis Shown is Incorrect, or (O) All Other Adjustments. I looked in the 8949 Instructions, and it's a little unclear, as it does mention doing either but does not mention specifically when inherited property.

Thanks!

If the basis was NOT reported to IRS, then you would enter the basis at DOD from your worksheet. No code or adjustment is needed in this case.

If the basis WAS reported to IRS, then enter the basis shown on the 1099B and enter code "B" in col (f) and enter the adjustment to basis in col (g).  Code "B" is for incorrect basis reported to IRS.

For either case, use "inherited" for date acquired and all of those sales will all be considered long-term.

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2 hours ago, jklcpa said:

For either case, use "inherited" for date acquired and all of those sales will all be considered long-term.

In ATX, it would actually be "Transaction Type" of "Inherited" that you select to get you the "Long Term" tax treatment.   The date acquired and the date sold will be the actual date you inherited and the date sold.   Transaction type overrides date input in ATX.  

It may be different in Drake or other software.

Tom
Longview, TX

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